Telephone
At some time in the future, the great literary works of our time and culture will be translated from the Ancient English (as they may call it) into the dominant language in currency. How impossible this must seem to us! The idiosyncrasies and colloquialisms of Mark Twain, Cormac McCarthy, W.H. Auden; the richness and intertextuals of John Barth, Thomas Pynchon, Vladimir Nabokov; the directness of E.B. White, Saul Bellow, and Ernest Hemingway (well, actually, Hemingway might not be so hard); the already several steps removed ainglish of Geoffrey Chaucer and William Shakespeare and John Keats... all these in reconstitutions that must seem like trying to taste caviar with your tongue wrapped in plastic.
These literary meanings are so bound to their words, their sequences, the very paragraphing on the page, that any other representation must seem to us -- as with a translation in our own time -- temporary, of second-best necessity. But in the future, these versions will become definitive; all originals studied by specialists only, as scholars now are the only qualified to read Homer or Sophocles in Ancient Greek; Aquinas, Cicero, Ovid in Latin. Think of this when you read Ajax or The Oresteia or The Iliad. All that matters is what our imagination makes of the past (or, more properly, all that can matter). Even yesterday can never live again, whether you believe in it or not.
Is this any different from a translation of someone great in our own time, such as Borges or Celine or Garcia Marquez? In the deepest sense, I suppose the answer is no. (In the deepest sense, all our utterances are but approximation, so we have to practice a different kind of faith.) But somewhat more superficially, though I hope not without some piquancy, I do think there is a difference. We do, after all, maintain some cultural connections to our lineage and our timeline, however seemingly far removed. I can imagine the alleyways of Rio de Janeiro, though I have never been there, in a way that I have no chance of imagining the alleyways of Livy's Rome. To put it somewhat more accurately, I am less mistaken in my imagining of mid-century Rio than ancient Rome simply by virtue of proximity. The question would be: is this difference meaningful or meaningless? Or is the difference of degree really only a game of telephone: the farther you go down the line, the less connection to the original?
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